Teacher2Teacher 
Q&A #19812 
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From: Robert To: Teacher2Teacher Public Discussion Date: 2009090513:40:11 Subject: x=2 is equal to x=2 This is another approach.Given: x=2 There is an implied 1 ahead of the x. Rewrite as: 1 * (x)= 2. Multiply both sides of the equation by 1, obtaining 1*(1*(x))= 1*2. The result is +1(x)= 2, because 1*1 must give a + 1. This is so because 1 multiplied must always equal itself. If anyone sees a fallacy here,please let me know. This may be related to the absolute value function, but I do not know how to make the connection. Robert
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