> Consider these two series. s = lim (n=1 to inf) Sum(1/n) and t = lim > (n=1 to inf) Sum(1/(1+n)). Both series diverges, going to infinity. > Now if we multiply these, we can argue that every product of the new > series is smaller or equal to 1/n^2. So it should converge. Or can > we? Let us write the first as a series without the sigma and the > other with sigma. s*t = (1+1/2+1/3+ ...) * t. And since the first > from s (1 * t) diverges, how can s*t converge?
s.t = sum(n=1,oo) 1/n(n+1)
Since for all n in N, 0 < 1/n(n+1) < 1/n^2 and sum(n=1,oo) 1/n^2 converges, s.t converges by comparison theorem.