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Topic: 0! = 1
Replies: 25   Last Post: Oct 8, 2003 6:35 AM

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Duane Jones

Posts: 18
Registered: 12/13/04
Re: 0! = 1
Posted: Aug 11, 2001 12:14 AM
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"Virgil" <vmhjr2@home.com> wrote in message
news://vmhjr2-A0ECCE.21141910082001@news1.denver1.co.home.com...
> In article <IY_c7.168$Iw2.8744@petpeeve.ziplink.net>,
> "Duane Jones" <gauss@ziplink.net> wrote:
>

> > "Virgil" <vmhjr2@home.com> wrote in message
> > news://vmhjr2-08FC87.16133710082001@news1.denver1.co.home.com...

> > > In article <3b73c07e.0@katana.legend.co.uk>,
> > > "Carl W." <no-one@dev.null> wrote:
> > >

> > > > Virgil <vmhjr2@home.com> wrote in message
> > > > news://vmhjr2-E3F3EE.23043509082001@news1.denver1.co.home.com...
> > > >

> > > > > (2) if n! = n*(n-1)!, and n = 1, what is (n-1)!?
> > > >
> > > > This is a slightly dodgy argument in that we could say the same for

n =
> > 0.
> > > >
> > > > i.e. if n! = n((n-1)!), and n = 0, what is (n-1)!?

> > >
> > >
> > > Not so. Anyone can solve 1 = 1*x for x, which defines x = 0! but how
> > > do you solve 1 = 0*x for x, which is needed to define x = (0-1)! ?

> >
> >
> > How so? In (2) above, 1! can only be defined after knowing 0!. You
> > inadvertently assume 1! = 1 to show that 0! = 1.
> >
> > Cheers,
> > Duane
> >
> >
> >

>
> You are not following the thread. Carl W. assumed 1! = 1 but that 0!
> was naturally undefined.
>
> Carl W. then said that if 0! could be found from 1! by downward use
> of the relation n! = n*(n-1)!, then (0-1)! be found from 0!
> similarly.
>
> I was refuting that thesis.


I don't recall Carl stating that. Re-read his post. You parsed his
argument prematurely leaving only (2). It was from that I was arguing.

Cheers,
Duane








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