On Aug 20, 1:19 am, contact080...@jamesrmeyer.com wrote: > On Aug 19, 6:35 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...@hotmail.com> wrote:
> > Just as a general matter, I know of no law that a symbol cannot be a > > variable in both an object language and a meta-language for an object > > language. I mentioned that already, and you even quoted me on it in > > your post, but you have not responded to the point. You have not shown > > where such a law is stipulated nor why we should be obligated to such > > a law (other than for convenience, which is not a binding basis for > > such a law). However, as I mentioned, that is an arcane point onto > > itself. I am not aware that Godel uses a symbol to be both a variable > > of the object language and of the meta-language.
> I?ve already dealt with that (message 44, Aug 18, 9:26)
That is a somewhat long post replete with a number of unpleasant confusions. If you are inclined, please quote the specific passage(s) you have in mind.
