
Does polynomial P need to be an affine mapping
Posted:
May 6, 2013 7:16 PM


Let P be a polynomial with real coefficients. Suppose there are non empty intervals I and J such that P maps surjectively the rationals of I into the rationals of J. Does this imply P is an affine mapping ?
Why or why not? So far, I couldn't come to a conclusion.
Thank you.

