On 7 Maj, 09:47, rich...@cogsci.ed.ac.uk (Richard Tobin) wrote: > In article <17c4d117-7650-41f3-b804-2401b20ab...@k5g2000vbq.googlegroups.com>, > > JT <jonas.thornv...@gmail.com> wrote: > >Yes but Pi is approximation, > > You've already been told this is wrong. > > >my answer would be a fraction and > >therefor exact for the sought and aquired smoothness. > > It would be an approximation to pi. > > -- Richard
No i am not, Pi is an approximation my fraction would be far more accurate for the desired precision.