
Re: Does this imply that lim x > oo f'(x) = 0?
Posted:
May 23, 2013 11:24 AM


On 23/05/2013 16:11, steinerartur@gmail.com wrote: > Suppose f:[0, oo) > R is increasing, differentiable and has a > finite limit as x > oo. Then, must we have lim x > oo f'(x) = 0? > I guess not, but couldn't find a counter example.
Think of a function that's flat, then rapidly jerks upward then flat again then rapidly jerks up and does this infinitely often ....

