
Re: 1.39  What exactly is the Mean value Theorem?
Posted:
Jun 19, 2014 10:20 AM


John Gabriel <thenewcalculus@gmail.com> wrote: > On Thursday, 19 June 2014 15:54:31 UTC+2, Dirk Van de moortel wrote: > >> He might have missed the apostrophe in f'. > > Like you he misses a lot of things. > >>> He keeps getting it wrong. Gee, I wish that clowns would stop >>> posting crap. > >> Perhaps you should be an example then. > > How about you practise what you preach? Just because you understood > this part does not mean you know everything now! You are wrong about > so many things which you have failed to understand.
Take the function f(x) = 1/x. See if you can prove continuity at x=1 with *your* equivalence: For all epsilon > 0, Exist delta > 0, such that for all x: x1 < delta <==> 1/x1 < epsilon
Take epsilon = 2. Give me that delta,and I'll give you an x that does NOT satisfy the equivalence.
Dirk Vdm

