Date: Sep 6, 2012 11:01 AM
Author: Paul A. Tanner III
Subject: Re: What's the Meaning of "Direct Instruction"?
On Wed, Sep 5, 2012 at 9:29 PM, Haim <email@example.com> wrote:
> Robert Hansen Posted: Sep 5, 2012 2:54 PM
>>If I made this statement in 1950, it would be a
>>conjecture, but making it now with the overwhelming
>>abundance of data in front of us, it is a fact. An
>>unfortunate fact, but still a fact. What the last 3
>>decades have proven is that educators cannot close the
>>gap, but they can dumb down subjects.
But before I yet again show the falsity of this false claim that there has been no statistically significant reduction of the gaps in question over the long-term, since 1950, these questions:
Why do you keep dumping on trying to help blacks and Hispanics while not dumping on trying to help whites? Is the answer to be found in your ongoing promotion of the racist idea found in the white supremacist literature that the public schools are trying to improve black and Hispanic performance but not trying to white performance? You keep making the proved false claim that there can never be any statistically significant reduction in the gaps in question. Why do you keep arguing in a way that promotes the racist idea found in the white supremacist literature that there *cannot* be any statistically significant reduction in the gaps in question because of the genetic inferiority of blacks and Hispanics in terms of academic capability?
To quote from my prior post in this thread, directed at Robert and now directed at you:
"It is not a fact. It is a false claim and even a lie and even a racist lie if one making the claim knows the truth, which is that by many measures, the performance gap between whites on the one hand and blacks and Hispanics on the other has closed to a significantly significant extent over the long-term, over the past half century. I have demonstrated this many times in other threads, whether the measure is high school graduation rates even while the minimum requirements for graduation have increased significantly, or whether it is NAEP scores. See these:
The reader should know that very long-term trend over the past almost half century shows a statistically significant decline in the gaps for all ages. Here are some charts showing data up to a few years ago from 1973 for ages 9, 13, and 17:
For instance, the chart for the black-white math performance gap for 17-year olds shows a decrease from 40 points to 26 points over a 35 year period starting in 1973:
For instance, the chart for the Hispanic-white math performance gap for 17-year olds shows a decrease from 33 points to 21 points over a 35 year period starting in 1973:
And please do not make any anti-mathematics and anti-science claims like long-term decreasing trends count as such only if they are strictly decreasing or monotonically decreasing. There can be temporary periods over the long-term where there will not be closings of the gaps - during such periods one should even expect to see increases in the gaps. I repeat: This is about long-term trends, and every attempt to say otherwise is not in line with what is at issue.
The arguments you put forth here promote the agenda of the white supremacists who do not want to see any more attempts to try to get blacks and Hispanics to close the gaps more than they have, and since the arguments you put forth here echo the white supremacist claim that any attempt to close the gaps must cause harm to whites.
I therefore again am compelled to ask you this question: Do you believe that blacks and Hispanics are genetically less capable than whites in terms of academic capability? Yes or no.
If no, then why do you promote this white supremacist agenda that society should just give up on blacks and Hispanics, and why do you echo the white supremacist claim that any attempt to close the gaps must cause harm to whites?"