Date: Nov 19, 2012 1:52 AM
Subject: Re: Matheology § 152
On 19 Nov., 01:14, Vurgil <Vur...@arg.erg> wrote:
> I see no reason to suppose that the expression is well enough defined to
> have anything like a unique limit.
> If it is expressible as the limit of a sequence at all, then show us
> the terms of such a sequence.- Zitierten Text ausblenden -
Here you are:
> > 01.
> > 0.1
> > 010.1
> > 01.01
> > 0101.01
> > 010.101
> > 01010.101
> > 0101.0101
> > ...
Is this in fact more difficult to grasp than, say, the Conway
sequence? Should I be proud for that reason?