Date: Nov 19, 2012 1:52 AM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 152
On 19 Nov., 01:14, Vurgil <Vur...@arg.erg> wrote:

>

> I see no reason to suppose that the expression is well enough defined to

> have anything like a unique limit.

> If it is expressible as the limit of a sequence at all, then show us

> the terms of such a sequence.- Zitierten Text ausblenden -

Here you are:

> > 01.

> > 0.1

> > 010.1

> > 01.01

> > 0101.01

> > 010.101

> > 01010.101

> > 0101.0101

> > ...

Is this in fact more difficult to grasp than, say, the Conway

sequence? Should I be proud for that reason?

Regards, WM