Date: Dec 7, 2012 4:35 PM
Subject: Re: Matheology � 170
WM <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
> On 6 Dez., 21:29, Virgil <vir...@ligriv.com> wrote:
> > In article
> > <a70f6b2c-c9a2-426d-9da4-70ad9785b...@o6g2000yql.googlegroups.com>,
> > WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
> > > A unit lenght 1 times aleph_0 is what?
> > Nonsense!
> A unit times aleph_0 is aleph_0.
That presumes that Aleph_0 is amenable to some sort of multiplication
A claim that requires proof, as Aleph_0 is not a member of any of the
sets of numbers for which multiplication is defined, and is not a unit
of measure, like yards or metres, that can be halved or doubled