```Date: Feb 4, 2013 5:04 AM
Author: mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de
Subject: Re: Matheology § 203

On 4 Feb., 10:19, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:> On Feb 4, 5:29 am, fom <fomJ...@nyms.net> wrote:>> > On 2/3/2013 9:20 PM, Virgil wrote:> > >> There is no sensible way of saying that 0.111... is more than every> > >> FIS.>> > > How about "For all f, (f is a FIS) -> (length(0.111...) > length(f))" .>> > In view of WM's positions, length(0.111...) would have> > to be the value given to a non-existent.>> Nope.  According to WM the 0.111... is the potentially> infinite sequence  {.1, .11, .111, ...}> It certainly existsWe must be careful. There is no equivalence. 1/9 and 0.111... are bothfinite expressions, finite formulas. Using one of these formulas wecan calculate every FIS of 0.111..., namely 0.1, 0.11, and so on. Butfrom none of the FIS we can obtain 1/9 or 0.111. And the complete setof FISs does not exist as the complete string consisting of infinitelymany 1's (and not only of the formula to calculate each one) does notexist.This nonexistence is so obvious that noone cares. Why else has nobodyever used the complete string?Regards, WM
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