Date: Feb 12, 2013 4:46 PM
Author: Jesse F. Hughes
Subject: Re: infinity can't exist

fom <> writes:

> In Aristotle, one finds the discussion that one can
> never define x=y. To be precise, he says that one
> can never prove a definition, but one can destroy
> a definition. But, definitions rely on the notion
> that some word is "the same" as the object toward
> which its language act of referring is directed.

What part of Aristotle do you have in mind?

I'm not challenging you. I know only a smidgen of his writings. But
I'd appreciate a pointer to the chapter where he discusses this.


Jesse F. Hughes

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