Date: Feb 17, 2013 4:29 PM Author: plutonium.archimedes@gmail.com Subject: Deriving the idea that all magnetic monopoles are attractive force<br> #1237 New Physics #1357 ATOM TOTALITY 5th ed Deriving the idea that the magnetic monopoles are all attractive

force, not repulsion

Alright many posts ago I wrote how the Maxwell Equations, the

symmetrical Maxwell Equations when summed together produce both the

Schrodinger and Dirac Equations as subsets, minor subsets of the

Maxwell Equations. But today I want to tease out of the Maxwell

Equations the idea that all magnetic monopoles are attractive force.

This means that no matter whether you have north to north, north to

south, south to north or south to south magnetic monopoles that all

four possibilities is always an attraction force and never a repelling

force.

So let me see if I can derive that idea. And I would hazard to say

that I believe no physicist of today, other than myself is capable of

doing this task, but that hundreds of mathematicians are capable of

doing this task. Physicists of the last 100 years were so bad in

mathematics that only 2 physicists could venture to use mathematics

into physics, Schrodinger and Dirac and we see now that even their

attempts come up as minor subsets of the true physics. For in the

total summation of the Symmetrical Maxwell Equations, we get not only

the Dirac Equation as a minor subset, but we get so much much more.

From the Dirac Equation we could not get the fact that magnetic

monopoles are all attractive regardless of what pole they are, whether

north or south. But in the summation of Maxwell Equations we can

derive that idea as I spell out below.

Alright, these are the 4 symmetrical Maxwell Equations with magnetic

monopoles:

div*E = r_E ?div*B = r_B ?- curlxE = dB + J_B ?curlxB = dE + J_E

Now to derive the Dirac Equation from the Maxwell Equations we add

the ?lot together:

div*E = r_E ?div*B = r_B ?- curlxE = dB + J_B ?curlxB = dE + J_E

________________

div*E + div*B + (-1)curlxE + curlxB = r_E + r_B + dB + dE + J_E + J_B

Now Wikipedia has a good description of how Dirac derived his famous

equation which gives this:

(Ad_x + Bd_y + Cd_z + (i/c)Dd_t - mc/h) p = 0

So how is the above summation of Maxwell Equations that of a

generalized Dirac Equation?

Well, the four terms of div and curl are the A,B,C,D terms. And the

right side of the equation can all be ?conglomerated into one term and

the negative sign in the Faraday law ?can turn that right side into

the negative sign.

Alright the Schrodinger Eq. is easily derived from the Maxwell

Equations. In the Dirac Equation we need more than one of the Maxwell

Equations because it is a 4x4 matrix equation and so the full 4

Maxwell Equations are needed to cover the Dirac Equation, although

the

Dirac Equation ends up being a minor subset of the 4 Maxwell

Equations, because the Dirac Equation does not allow the photon to be

a double transverse wave while the Summation of the Maxwell Equations

demands the photon be a double transverse wave.

But the Schrodinger Equation:

ihd(f(w)) = Hf(w) where f(w) is the wave function

The Schrodinger Equation is easily derived from the mere Gauss's laws

combined:

These are the 4 symmetrical Maxwell Equations with magnetic

monopoles:

div*E = r_E

div*B = r_B

- curlxE = dB + J_B

curlxB = dE + J_E

Now the two Gauss's law of Maxwell Equations standing alone are

nonrelativistic and so is the Schrodinger Equation.

div*E = r_E ?div*B = r_B ?____________ ?div*E + div*B = r_E + r_B

this is reduced to ?k(d(f(x))) = H(f(x))

Now Schrodinger derived his equation out of thin air, using the

Fick's ?law of diffusion. So Schrodinger never really used the

Maxwell ?Equations. The Maxwell Equations were foreign to Schrodinger

and to ?all the physicists of the 20th century when it came time to

find the ?wave function. But how easy it would have been for

Schrodinger if he ?instead, reasoned that the Maxwell Equations

derives all of Physics, ?and that he should only focus on the Maxwell

Equations. Because if he ?had reasoned that the Maxwell Equations were

the axiom set of all of ?physics and then derived the Schrodinger

Equation from the two Gauss ?laws, he would and could have further

reasoned that if you Summation ?all 4 Maxwell Equations, that

Schrodinger would then have derived the ?relativistic wave equation

and thus have found the Dirac Equation long ?before Dirac ever had the

idea of finding a relativistic wave ?equation.

Now, how is it that we derive all monopoles are attractive regardless

of polarity from the Summation of Maxwell Equations? I need

mathematicians to verify my claim. And I think the physicists of today

are too dumb to be able to proceed in this.

I roughly figure that if you had a repulsion or repelling in the

polarity of magnetic monopoles that you would have to introduce

another negative term in the Summation whereas the summation as it

stands now has only one negative term in the Faraday law component. If

magnetic monopoles had repulsion then the magnetic current density and

the Gauss's law of magnetism would also require negative terms. But if

all monopoles had one polarity, had only attraction force, then no

need to have negative terms in the Maxwell Equation other than the

Faraday law negative term.

Again, I need competent mathematicians to verify for my opinion is

that no physicist of today is competent enough. Of course, if Dirac

were still alive and in prime, would be the best qualified of all. I

dare say, if Feynman were alive, he too would be competent enough. But

sadly, both are gone and the physicists remaining are not worth the

asking.

--

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bombing. Only Drexel's Math Forum has done a excellent, simple and

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Archimedes Plutonium

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whole entire Universe is just one big atom

where dots of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies