Date: Apr 4, 2013 10:08 AM
Author: William Hughes
Subject: Re: Matheology § 224
On Apr 2, 10:45 pm, WM <mueck...@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:
> On 2 Apr., 00:14, William Hughes <wpihug...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > The difference between the trees is not which
> > subsets of nodes exist, but which subsets are
> > considered to be paths.
> The tree of all finite paths and the tree of all paths like every tree
> has infinite paths. Therefore there is no tree which has only finite
> subsets that are considered paths.
You confuse subsets of nodes, which belong
to both trees, with paths which are defined
differently for the two different trees.
Only in one of the trees
can a subset of nodes without a last
node be considered a path.
> Is this tree
> 0 1
> 0 1 0 1
> that one with infinite subsets not considered paths?
I do not know. You have shows
me a set of nodes, but have not
told me which subsets are considered