Date: Apr 6, 2013 4:45 PM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: Matheology � 224

In article 
<a808bd14-d522-4376-abf6-e7dd75b089b3@y12g2000vbh.googlegroups.com>,
WM <mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> > > How do we call a set when we cannot biject it with a FIS on |N?
> >
> > Infinite!

>
> So the set E of all lines that can be removed is infinite, like every
> inductive set, by the way, and like the set that contains {a} if it
> contains a.


There is no such thing as a unique set of all lines that can be removed,
nor any maximal such set. One can have an increasing sequence of such
sets whose limit is not such a set.
>
> But according to WH these sets are finite. It is only a small problem,
> that we do not know and cannot determine the finite number of their
> elements and the last element.


Such comments illustrate WM's lack of comprehension.
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