Date: Apr 6, 2013 4:45 PM
Author: Virgil
Subject: Re: Matheology � 224
In article

<a808bd14-d522-4376-abf6-e7dd75b089b3@y12g2000vbh.googlegroups.com>,

WM <mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de> wrote:

> > > How do we call a set when we cannot biject it with a FIS on |N?

> >

> > Infinite!

>

> So the set E of all lines that can be removed is infinite, like every

> inductive set, by the way, and like the set that contains {a} if it

> contains a.

There is no such thing as a unique set of all lines that can be removed,

nor any maximal such set. One can have an increasing sequence of such

sets whose limit is not such a set.

>

> But according to WH these sets are finite. It is only a small problem,

> that we do not know and cannot determine the finite number of their

> elements and the last element.

Such comments illustrate WM's lack of comprehension.

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