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Topic: The finite infinite and the infinite infinite
Replies: 17   Last Post: Aug 29, 2012 2:55 PM

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Ralf Bader

Posts: 481
Registered: 7/4/05
Re: The finite infinite and the infinite infinite
Posted: Aug 28, 2012 5:26 PM
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WM wrote:

> On 28 Aug., 00:07, MoeBlee <modem...@gmail.com> wrote:

>> > For "the" hierarchy of sets, i.e. in order to have a cardinality for
>> > every set and to have all cardinalities in trichotomy, it is required,
>> > that every set has a least ordinal,

>> Wrong. And you can't even state any of this correctly.
>> And I've corrected you on this point over and over and over, but you
>> continue to ignore.

> You would even accuse the devil of being incompetent in matters of
> hell or Cantor of being incompetent in matters of set theory.

>> 1. If we define 'card(x)' as 'the least ordinal equinumerous with x',
>> then, yes, of course in order for 'card' to be properly defined for
>> all sets, it must be the case that every set is equinumerous with some
>> ordinal. (But "has an ordinal", as you incompently write, but rather
>> "is equinumerous with an ordinal".)

> Didn't I foretell it???
> If you were not to uncultured to understand German texts, then you
> could probably understand what a perfect idiot of incompetence you
> are.

You are so unbelievably dull that you can not even understand trivial facts
that you have been told now for 8 years: Cantor's ways of expressing these
things are to a large part obsolete, especially so in the snippets from
Cantor's letters which I have deleted.

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