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1.44  Why does Newton's difference quotient work at all?
Posted:
Jun 20, 2014 2:33 PM


The following applet explains dynamically why Newton's derivative definition worked:
https://www.filesanywhere.com/fs/v.aspx?v=8b6d668f616372b6a5ae
If Newton restricted his definition to the general derivative, then it was unnecessary for Cauchy to add his limit concept.
The article called Cauchy's Kludge (at http://thenewcalculus.weebly.com) explains in detail.
Comments are NOT welcome. This comment is provided in the interests of public education; and to eradicate ignorance and stupidity from mainstream mathematics.



