Range of the Coefficient of FrictionDate: 10/18/2000 at 17:34:17 From: Steve Kapa Subject: Can Coefficient of Friction be > 1 My college physics professor stated that the coefficient of friction can be greater than one. I asked him how that could be. He *assigned* the coefficient of friction (mu) a value of 5 and plugged it into the formula f = mu * N. I told him he couldn't just assign a value to mu, and asked him how he got that. After further discussion he got frustrated, closed (I should say slammed) his book, and then dismissed class. My question is, can you *prove* that the coefficient of friction (a ratio, from my understanding) can't be greater than 1? Thank you. Date: 10/23/2000 at 16:39:56 From: Doctor Wolfson Subject: Re: Can Coefficient of Friction be > 1 Hi Steve, Interesting question. Let's look at an example to see how "very sticky" surfaces behave: Let's say, for convenience, that we're on a planet where g = 1 m/s^2, and we have a high-friction inclined slope of 60 degrees, with a high-friction mass of m = 1 kg that we are pulling downward (assisting gravity) with just the right force to compensate for friction and cause it not to accelerate at all. And let's say that the force we have to apply is (5 - sqrt(3))/2 N ~= 1.64 Newtons. Does this seem plausible so far? We're just picking the numbers to use as parameters. The force due to gravity is mg sin(theta), or 1*1*sqrt(3)/2. So this force, combined with the one we are providing, yields a total downward force of 5/2. Since the object doesn't accelerate, friction must be equal and opposite to the downward force: (mu)*m*g*cos(theta) = 5/2 (mu)*1*1*1/2 = 5/2 mu = 5 As it turns out, even though most materials have values of mu considerably less than 1, this actually isn't a requirement, and mu isn't limited to the [0, 1) range. Physics doesn't "malfunction," nor does friction start speeding the object up backwards, just because mu is greater than 1. Incidentally, the example I gave can be thought of as a rough definition of mu_(kinetic) - it is the value that makes the friction equation balance with the amount of force required to prevent frictional deceleration. I hope this helps. Feel free to write back if you'd like further clarification. - Doctor Wolfson, The Math Forum http://mathforum.org/dr.math/ Date: 10/23/2000 at 16:50:02 From: Doctor Ian Subject: Re: Can Coefficient of Friction be > 1 Hi Steve, The thing is, it's easy to think of examples where the "coefficient of friction" would be greater than 1 - a bulldozer on dirt, for example, or Scotch tape on glass, or velcro - but in most of these cases, there is some question whether it's proper to describe what's going on as "friction," rather than something like "adhesion." If I pound a piton into a mountain, it won't slide, but is it really friction that prevents it from sliding? Friction is sort of a catch- all category - if we can't explain a resistive force in any other way, then we call it friction. However, in looking around the Web, I came across the following URL: The Coefficient of Friction, Coulomb (Static) and Dynamic (Kinetic) Friction (MathEngine Fast Dynamics Toolkit) http://www.mathengine.com/sdk1/Developers/SDK/FastDynamics/Docs/PhysicsNotes/FrictionCoefficient.html which contains the following coefficients: Aluminum on Aluminum 1.3 Copper on Copper 1.3 Iron on Iron 1.0 Rubber on Steel 1.6 The first three can perhaps be explained in terms of something other than "friction" (e.g., "galling," which is the phenomenon that requires the frame and slide of a pistol to be made from different materials), but that's not the case for the fourth. I guess you could call this an "existence proof" - we know that the coefficient can be greater than one, because there exists a pair of materials for which that is the case. I hope this helps. I know that Dr. Wolfson provided a different proof. Write back if you're not happy with either of our answers. And thank you for a very interesting question. We've all had a lot of fun thinking about it. - Doctor Ian, The Math Forum http://mathforum.org/dr.math/ |
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